Re: Weekly Vocab 6: to know
|From:||James Worlton <jamesworlton@...>|
|Date:||Friday, May 9, 2003, 0:31|
--- "Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...> wrote:
> On Wed, May 07, 2003 at 02:29:21PM -0700, Joe Fatula
> > > True enough. Whenever an infinitive for "modal
> can" is called for,
> > > "to be able to" is used. "To can" refers to the
> process of putting things
> > > in cans. :)
> > And it's pronounced differently, too, so it's
> certainly a different word.
> > Just like "have" /h&v/ and "have" /h&_rf/,
> analogous to Spanish "tener" and
> > "haber".
> Maybe in your idiolect that's true, but I don't
> think it's true
> generally. At least, it's not true for me. As I
> say them,
> the only differences between the two uses of "have"
> and "can"
> come from emphasis; most of the time, the main verb
> is emphasized,
> not the modal, so the vowel in the modal gets
> reduced to a schwa or
> even disappears. But whenever the modal is
> emphasized, for whatever
> reason, it sounds identical to the spelled-alike
> verb in my pronunciation.
> So, for instance, all of these "can"s sound alike
> (specifically, like
> Can you can?
> Yes, I can!
> Ah, but can you Can-Can?
> As do both of these "have"s ([h&v]):
> I have done it.
> I have it.
What about the use of 'have' in the sense of 'need':
I have to go to the store.
I don't know the correct way to indicate the sound of
this, but it seems that it is different than the two
examples above (at least to me, and the way I have
heard others use it).
Oh, and Hi all. This is my first post. I have been
lurking for a few weeks and decided to jump in.
(Forgive me if this gets posted twice. I don't think
it worked the first time.)
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