Re: Celtic languages?
|From:||John Cowan <jcowan@...>|
|Date:||Friday, October 1, 2004, 11:02|
Ray Brown scripsit:
> Quite true - the initial mutations of the Gaelic & Brittonic groups, tho
> having some superficial similarities, are different and cannot go back to
> a common ancestor. There can be no reasonable doubt IMO that they were
> independent developments in the two groups.
Independent in the sense that they don't descend from Common Celtic.
Not, however, independent in the sense that one cannot have influenced
> ...yep - being akin to Basque :)
Being Basque. :-)
> >Celtic superlative ending *-isamo in:
> Again, what is it that indicates these are superlatives? If they are
> superlatives, why could they not be related to Italic forms like the
> -issim- <--- *itt@m- ?
It is precisely the superlative that was one of the earliest bits of
evidence for the Celtic-Italic theory (which, if mostly ignored now
adays, is far from dead). However, "-issim-" cannot have been the
original Italic superlative as such; the Oscan/Umbrian evidence makes
it clear that Common Italic used something like [m_0=mo], which
surfaces in Latin in those few superlatives in -i:mus and -e:mus.
(Another possible case is bru:ma 'winter' < brevis, oddly enough.)
Latin -issim- is too regular to be anything but an innovation.
John Cowan firstname.lastname@example.org http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
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