> > > It doesn't say anything about
> > > whether these aristocrats retained a Celtic language for any
considerable
> > > length of time.
> >
> > I believe there is anecdotal evidence from the ancients that the Galatai
> > of Asia Minor retained their language till about the 4th or 5th cent
CE -
> > at least some of them. St Paul chose to write to them in Greek. But I
have
> > not been able to discover any concrete evidence what the language was.
>
> Does that mean that we don't know whether Galatian is "Celtic" in any
> meaningful sense at all?
could it have been or become a sort of Greco-Celtic hybrid?
*shrugs*