Re: a small phonological question about the French 'r'.
From: | Raymond A. Brown <raybrown@...> |
Date: | Friday, October 1, 1999, 21:18 |
At 10:39 am -0700 1/10/99, Sally Caves wrote:
>Christophe Grandsire wrote:
>>
>> For those one the list who are very good at phonology, I have a small
>> question. What is the phonological status of the French 'r'? Can it be
>> better described as an uvular fricative or an uvular trill? Because at
>> this PoA I have difficulties to know what I'm really doing when I
>> pronounce this sound.
>
>
>A uvular trill, to my mind, would be what some German speakers do with
>initial r.
Yes. It is sometimes heard in French also. The priest who officated at my
son & daughter-in-law's wedding in France (she is French) had vigorously
trilled Rs. I'm told this was much in favor earlier this century before
microphones, telephones etc when one actually had to make onself heard,
since the vibrating sound carries through noise. But, according to my
daughter-in-law, it is considered old-fashioned by most modern French
speakers.
The uvular trill may also be heard among some north Walian speakers in
instead of the usual apically trilled /r/ of Welsh.
[snip]
>
>I have always called what the French do (much easier for me to
>reproduce)
>a "uvular scrape" <G> !
Nice description :)
The more technical one is 'voiced uvular fricative'.
Ray.