Re: USAGE: [YAEPT] (was Re: "To whom")
From: | Rob Haden <magwich78@...> |
Date: | Friday, January 28, 2005, 4:46 |
On Wed, 26 Jan 2005 21:58:44 +1100, Tristan McLeay
<conlang@...> wrote:
>I don't know that the glottal stop is phonemic (and I've heard evidence
>that the phoneme for US [4] is actually /t/, so 'meddle' and 'mettle'
>are both homophones as (what I suppose is) /mEtl=/, contrary to
>intuition).
I seem to pronounce both as /'mEdl=/. Sometimes, at least, I think the /d/
is retroflex. At least "IMD", [4] is not really an allophone of /d/
& /t/. But there's only a subtle distinction there, I think.
Someone else brought up "mitten" vs. "midden". I pronounce them as ['mI?
n=] and ['mIdn=], respectively. Who here also pronounces "mountain" as
['maU?n=]? :b
Finally, I read that there's phonetic (but not phonemic) lengthening of
vowels in closed syllables ending with voiced stops. After listening to
how I pronounce "bet" vs. "bed", I can say that that's true with some
English speakers. The former is [bEt_h] or [bE?] ~ [bE?_h] and the latter
[bE:d], for me. (Is there such a thing as an aspirated glottal stop?)
- Rob
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