Re: k(w)->p
| From: | Ed Heil <edheil@...> |
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| Date: | Tuesday, January 25, 2000, 22:03 |
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Raymond Brown wrote:
> At 5:51 pm -0600 24/1/00, Ed Heil wrote:
> >The IE labalized velar turning into a labial always struck me as
> >really bizarre.
>
> I don't see why. Northern English [hw] in 'what' had become [f] in some
> Scots dialects (probably now obsolete - but still surving into the early
> 20th cent AFAIK).
Well, acoustically "f" and "hw" are nearly identical, so that's
easier for me to grasp. The same is not the case with qu and p.
It just doesn't seem very intuitive to me. qu and p seem very
different; I can't imagine people substituting one for the other,
though I know there's good reason to believe they did.
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