Re: Word-initial sound changes
| From: | John Cowan <jcowan@...> |
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| Date: | Thursday, January 27, 2000, 20:49 |
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raccoon@ELKNET.NET wrote:
> I know that in languages I'm familiar with that use some form of lenition
> (voicing or fricativization, or both), lenition doesn't occur
> word-initially. My question is, how unreasonable would it be for lenition to
> occur word (and phrase)-initially too?
Totally reasonable, and what the Celtic languages (and their conlang
relatives) do.
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