Word-initial sound changes
|Date:||Thursday, January 27, 2000, 19:59|
I know that in languages I'm familiar with that use some form of lenition
(voicing or fricativization, or both), lenition doesn't occur
word-initially. My question is, how unreasonable would it be for lenition to
occur word (and phrase)-initially too? I'd like to have a phonology of plain
stops, aspirated stops, and glottalized stops, all unvoiced, and have the
plain stops become voiced. Make sense?