Re: OT: For information only !

Mark J. Reed wrote:

>On Mon, Jun 14, 2004 at 09:38:33PM +0200, Christophe Grandsire wrote:
>
>
>>En réponse à Tristan Mc Leay :
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>>One thing I don't get is why the French do their elections proper in two
>>>rounds.
>>>
>>>
>>Because most elections (at least those that require electing a single
>>person) require an absolute majority (i.e. 50% of the valid votes + 1) to
>>be decided.
>>
>>
>
>Right.  USA elections are precisely the same way.  If nobody gets
>a simple majority of the votes the first round, there is a "run-off"
>election between the candidates with the two greatest totals; you can't
>win with a simple plurality.   However, given that we effectively have a
>two-party system here, one of the candidates from those parties usually
>does get the majority in the first round, obviating the run-off.
>
>
Methought that if the President didn't get more than 50% of the
electoral vote, it went to Congress.  Or am I wrong?

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