| From: | Joe <joe@...> |
|---|---|
| Date: | Sunday, September 19, 2004, 8:15 |
John Cowan wrote:> > > > >>Why, if what I said is untrue, was it agreed at the time that the reigning >>monarch of the UK would take the higher number out of the English & Scots >>lines of monarchs? >> >> > >To clarify: at the time of Elizabeth's accession, that is. But if >applied retroactively, no monarchs since 1707 would change numbers. >The Scottish monarchs had a lot more different names, so their numbers >tend to be lower. > > >William IV should be William III in Scotland.