Re: semantics question

Quoting Rob Haden <magwich78@...>:

> On Fri, 11 Jul 2003 07:26:19 -0500, Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>
> wrote:
>
> >What's '(Ryan 2000)'?
>
> I was listing Patrick C. Ryan, from whose 'Proto-Language' I am deriving
> OurTongue, as the source for the momentary vs. durative distinction.  The
> specific source is: http://www.geocities.com/Athens/Forum/2803/IE-
> VerbalInflection.htm.
<rant>

Might I point out, politely, that as far as conlanging goes
I see no problem with using forms from Ryan's putative 'Proto-
Language' as an a posteriori source of lexemes.  But I also feel
obliged to point out that most of what Mr. Ryan has to say on
these pages would be considered by the vast majority of professional
historical linguists to be the thoughts of a crackpot. Thus, you
should also be warned that many, many people will not take you
seriously if you pay him cite him.

</rant>

> >This reminds me of the pairs of imperfective vs. perfective
> >verbs in Russian, e.g. _kupit'_ 'buy something' _pokupit'_
> >'go about buying'.  Is that the inspiration, or did you stumble
> >upon this?
>
> No, that wasn't the inspiration.
It sounds like essentially the distinction that Russian makes
lexically in its verbal system.

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Thomas Wier            "I find it useful to meet my subjects personally,
Dept. of Linguistics    because our secret police don't get it right
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