Re: CHAT: cultural interpretation [was Re: THEORY: language and the brain]
From: | Peter Bleackley <peter.bleackley@...> |
Date: | Thursday, July 3, 2003, 15:59 |
Staving Mark J Reed:
>On Thu, Jul 03, 2003 at 03:27:31PM +0100, Peter Bleackley wrote:
> > At 10:06 03/07/2003 -0400, you wrote:
> > >On Thu, Jul 03, 2003 at 01:22:33PM +0100, Peter Bleackley wrote:
> > >> Underlying Realisation
> > >> Normal speech Whispered
> > >> Voiceless /c/ [c] [c]
> > >> Voiced /q/ [q] [c_h]
> > >>
> > >
> > >I think you've got that backwards. The phonetic _h should go with the
> > >phoneme whose underlying form is voiceless.
> >
> > Interesting, and very counter-intuitive.
>
>How so? Aspirated stops are naturally more forceful than
>non-aspirated, and voiceless stops are naturally more forceful
>than voiced ones (at least in English; see earlier discussion re:
>fortis/lenis). So how is it counter-intuitive that the more forceful
>stop in full voice remains the more forceful stop when whispered?
I was thinking that voiced stop = stop + voice
aspirated stop = stop + aspirate
stop => stop
voice => aspirate
Pete
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