Goblin? errrr... Greek, Latin and Hebrew phonology

On Fri, 13 Aug 1999 22:41:32 +1200 andrew <hobbit@...>
writes:
>On Thu, 12 Aug 1999, Steg Belsky wrote:
>> Well, i'm sort of incredulous at the idea of Hebrew _vav_ being [w],
>at
>> least as far back as the first few CE centuries...  In the Aramaic
>of the
>Wouldn't this coincide with similar soundchanges affecting Vulgar
>Latin,
>and possibly coinciding with what happened to Greek beta?
>- andrew.
>--
>Andrew Smith, Intheologus

I don't know anything about Vulgar Latin or Greek soundchanges, except
that Latin {v} [w] somehow became [v] in Spanish and French (at least).
What happened to the Greek beta?


-Stephen (Steg)

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