Re: USAGE: (Mis)Naming a Language
From: | caeruleancentaur <caeruleancentaur@...> |
Date: | Thursday, October 28, 2004, 23:02 |
On Thu, Oct 28, 2004 at 02:19:40PM -0400, Kit La Touche wrote:
>i think the real issue is one of both syllables being in the same
>metrical foot: [l&?n=] for "latin" and something like [l&4n=] ?
>for "ladin" - the latter is definitely voiced.
>
> hm. saying "latter" ([l&d@r\]) makes me think it might not be feet
>after all, but the syllabic n, as charlie points out. but i'm
>*definitely* not using any [}] in what i'm saying.
>
> curious.
>
> -kit
>
I must not be understanding the IPA-xsampa chart. It looks to me
like /&/ represents a rounded vowel, the IPA being the digraph OE. I
can't imagine anyone pronouncing the "a" in ladder/latter/Latin with
a rounded vowel. That's why I used the symbol /{/ which I understand
to represent the flat "a" as in the English word "pat." I think the
glottal stop (/?/ I believe) is better than what I orginally wrote,
but there is definitely no schwa (/@/) in my pronunciation of ladder,
which I see as /l{d3/. I think!
Charlie
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