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Re: CHAT: barbarisms (was: CHAT: Being both theologically correct and properly modern)

From:Vasiliy Chernov <bc_@...>
Date:Monday, May 14, 2001, 17:21
On Sun, 13 May 2001 01:57:12 -0400, John Cowan <cowan@...>

>Well, after all, the Greek derivatives in English, and Greek proper names >in English, are given Henninian stress: "A'cropolis", "Alex'ander" (not >"Alexan'der"), whether Across the Water or not.
I am suited to think that Western languages accentuate Greek words *as if* they were borrowed via Latin mediation (which was true of the earliest loans and thus established itself as a general rule). Am I wrong? It seems to me that Spanish, Italian and Portuguese are quite consequential in treating Greek words this way, while English is often influenced by the French word-final accent, with subsequent stress displacements according to its (English's) own rules (like in other borrowings from/via French). I can't think of any loans in English retaining (seemingly) the original Greek accentuation which would not allow for a different explanation. But this is only a general impression which I've never really tried to verify. Basilius