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'cultural neutrality' in translations

From:Muke Tever <alrivera@...>
Date:Tuesday, May 1, 2001, 4:13
From: "Andreas Johansson" <and_yo@...>
> >Indubitably. I seem to remember that someone suggested doing it as a > >translation exercise, and some people (including me) didn't want to > >do it because it wasn't culturally neutral, but heavily biased in the > >direction of 20th century Western culture.
> But how does a lack of "cultural neutrality" make something bad as an > translation exercise? Translating, for example, the UN declaration of human > rights into some language surely doesn't mean you agree with its content. > You could even be translating it so that the poor speakers of language X can > see for themselves how vile it is ...
Well, for those of us that haven't got large conlang vocabularies yet, a document like that would call for new word-concepts or whatnot [which would have to end up in the lexicon], and the very doing of it may skew the conlanger's mind in their general direction. Now, if enough lexicon already existed, and someone else translated it, then hmm... Or not. [I wouldn't translate it to Hadwan, because it would be anachronistic... it would be like making that Latin translation of it they have. Hrf...] *Muke!