Re: Arabic Questions
From: | J. 'Mach' Wust <j_mach_wust@...> |
Date: | Tuesday, September 28, 2004, 7:44 |
On Mon, 27 Sep 2004 15:44:09 EDT, David Peterson <ThatBlueCat@...>
wrote:
>J. wrote:
>
><<Voiceless glottal? I think this was about voiced pharyngeal. ??>>
>
>Someone had said that *my* description was that of a voiced [h], or [h\].
>I was trying to show that it wasn't, and conjecturing about how one might
>have come to that conclusion.
How could I not see it!
><<Maybe your misunderstanding is based on you two having different notions
>of the open back unrounded vowel [A], that is, Christian might think of it
>having in mind the Züritüütsch example, while David might think of it
>having in mind the English example. I'm not accusing anyone of being
>unaware that the IPA/X-SAMPA/CXS vowels are intended to be describe
>absolute qualities, but I just think we can't help being conditioned by our
>native languages.>>
>
>I don't follow. Can you explain more? :)
An unsyllabic version of his [A] may be the same as a voiced version of his
[h], while an unsyllabic version of your [A] may be the same as your [?\].
Of course, any [A] should be the same as any [A], but I suppose that
normally these notions are heavily influenced by one's native language.
kry@s:
j. 'mach' wust