| From: | Isaac A. Penzev <isaacp@...> |
|---|---|
| Date: | Monday, September 27, 2004, 20:11 |
J. 'Mach' Wust wrote:> Would this mean that there can be a three way distinction: /?/ - /?\/ -/0/? Why not? At least /?/ ~ /?\/ opposition is pretty common in Semitic lgs, e.g. BHe ["?ajin] 'there is no' vs. ["?\ajin] 'eye'. -- Yitzik