Re: Question about Morpheme Orders in Verbs.

--- "Thomas R. Wier" <trwier@...> wrote:

> From:    Elliott Lash <erelion12@...>
> > I'm trying to figure out if there are many
> languages
> > in which personal endings are not at the periphery
> of
> > the verbal complex. what I mean by this is if a
> verbal
> > complex can have a form like:
> >
> > A)   1) VERB_ROOT + PERSONAL_MORPHOLOGY +
> TENSE/MOOD
> >         V+P+T
>
> Meskwaki is such a language:
>
>     e:h-in-et-i
>     aorist-speak.thus.to-X>3-Conj
>     'One spoke thus to him.'
>
> Here, the personal morphology comes before the mode
> sign,
> here the conjunct mode found very frequently in
> texts.  My
> understand is that all the Algonquian languages used
> to, but
> not all now do, work this way.
My question therefore, is how does this develope? My
instinctual feeling is that personal inflections are
less associated with the verb than other information.
However, this might just be a product of being an
Indo-European speaker, and an English one at that,
where our personal pronouns aren't even very well
associated with the verb at all.

~Elliott


	
		
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