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Re: Phonological terminology question

From:Andreas Johansson <and_yo@...>
Date:Wednesday, February 19, 2003, 17:29
Daniel Andreasson wrote:
>Andreas Johansson wrote: > > > That ought to be a voiceless palatal approximant rather than a fullblown > > fricative, oughtn't it? I better don't ask how to IPAize a voiceless > > ingressive palatal approximant ... > >Yes, you're right. Though this discussion is as navel-gazing >as it gets by now. Or could we narrow it down even further? :)
I'm sure we could, but a more productive approach would be if we started to make a conlang where the difference between a voiceless palatal ingressive approximant and a voiceless palatal ingressive fricative was phonemic, thereby triggering the law that anything one can think up for a conlang occurs in some natlang in ten-times-worse form ... :-) Andreas _________________________________________________________________ Protect your PC - get VirusScan Online