|From:||Quentin Read <quonton79@...>|
|Date:||Tuesday, February 18, 2003, 3:37|
I was thinking about this: Does a language, if it has
one side of a pair of allophones (voiced+unvoiced
consonant) does it generally have the other or can
they sometimes exist in isolation? i.e., having sh
without zh. It seems that in English zh only exists
rarely, in Latinate words, so was there a point in
English in which there was sh and not zh?
Do you Yahoo!?
Yahoo! Shopping - Send Flowers for Valentine's Day