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Re: Phonological terminology question

From:Daniel Andreasson Vpc-Work <daniel.andreasson@...>
Date:Wednesday, February 19, 2003, 9:39
Andreas Johansson wrote:

> That ought to be a voiceless palatal approximant rather than a fullblown > fricative, oughtn't it? I better don't ask how to IPAize a voiceless > ingressive palatal approximant ...
Yes, you're right. Though this discussion is as navel-gazing as it gets by now. Or could we narrow it down even further? :) Daniel Andreasson