Re: C'ali update: Split-S cross-referencing, agentive pivot

This message made me realize that in creating Rihana-ye, I made
the root form of the verb the present tense active form of the verb,
probably by unconscious analogy with English (where that is true except of
course for 3rd sing.), whereas the Rihana-ye passive (and all other forms)
require verb suffixes. Rationally, I suppose any verb form could be the
root form (though the more common ones would be more likely) or, as in
some natlangs, the root form could add something to distinguish every
single case. It occurs to me to wonder why (and when) it was decided that the
basic form of Latin words listed in dictionaries would be the infinitive.
It certainly would not be the most commonly appearing form of the verb in
many contexts. Does anyone know whether this decision was made by
Classical grammarians or Renaissance scholars or what? Likewise why do
English dictionaries list verbs under the root (present tense active)
form, but normally use the infinitive "to" construction in the definition?
I followed that convention in compiling my Rihana-ye-English lexicon, but
reflecting on it, I wonder how it arose.
John Leland

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