Re: C'ali update: Split-S cross-referencing, agentive pivot
From: | Amanda Babcock <langs@...> |
Date: | Tuesday, July 15, 2003, 16:26 |
On Tue, Jul 15, 2003 at 11:31:26AM -0400, John Leland wrote:
> Classical grammarians or Renaissance scholars or what? Likewise why do
> English dictionaries list verbs under the root (present tense active)
> form, but normally use the infinitive "to" construction in the definition?
Er, I don't think they really do list it under the present tense active
form. I think they list it under the "infinitive minus to" form. Otherwise,
"be" would be found under "am", "are" or "is", wouldn't it?
Amanda
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