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Re: my phonology

From:Henrik Theiling <theiling@...>
Date:Friday, January 7, 2005, 2:57
Hi!

"J. 'Mach' Wust" <j_mach_wust@...> writes:
> On Thu, 6 Jan 2005 04:52:56 +0100, Henrik Theiling <theiling@...> wrote: > > >Why no palatals? (I mean, I don't especially like their sound, but my > >L1 contains a few, and Icelandic, which I like a lot, so why not?). > > To me it's not surpruising that a language with a velar-uvular contrast and > with a alveolar-postalveolar contrast lacks palatal sounds. The palate would > result exceedingly crowded.
Hehe. But in English, the /T/-/s/-/S/ contrast also occurs in a crowded area of the mouth. As Basque's /s_a/-/s_m/-/S/. I think /C/ is so much different from /x/ that a contrast would be feasible. Also /s/-/x/ and /s/-/C/ and /s`/-/C/. /S/-/C/ is also easily distinguishable for me, but my L1 is German, so that's not so much of a surprise -- still even German dialects collapse them. However, I mainly asked for the palatals, because the column was there and it seemed like the number of points of articulation was to be maximised, so I wondered why exactly palatals would not occur. **Henrik