Re: OT: Spanish pronouns ("usted", etc.)

It's indeen attested, In El Cantar de Mio Cid
specifically, and I'm sure there are other texts. It
was written down in 1142.

Here are some examples, pulled out at random:

Enpeñar-gelo-he por lo que fuere guisado   (92)
I will pawn it to them, for whatever it may be
reasonable

Dixo Rachel e Vida: Dar-gelos-emos de grado (136)
Said Rachel and Vida(s): "We shall give them to him
gladly"

Mas quando él me lo busca: yr-gelo-he yo demandar
(966)
But when he comes to me looking for it, I will go to
him for reckoning

E tienen-gelo delant e dieron-gelo privado (1050)
And they bring it to him, before (him) and gave it to
him quickly

E aquel que ge la diesse sopiesse vera palabra (26)
And whoever (that) might give it to him, know verily…

Ca assí-l dieran la fe que ge lo avién jurado (163)
For so they had pledged and had sworn it to him

You can see that the word order with clitics of this
sort was still rather free. It seems more Portuguese
like to me, but then, I dont know Portuguese, so that
might be a wild comparison. Anyway, notice that it can
be infixed between the root and the future tense
endings (92,136, 966). It can also follow inflected
forms (1050)

-Elliott


--- Roger Mills <rfmilly@...> wrote:

> Barry Garcia wrote:
> >
> > Ralph Penny says that it the substitution of gelo
> by se lo is partly
> > phonological between /S/ (</S/, /Z/) and /s/, and
> also syntactical. Se
> > lo already existed in Old Spanish and Middle
> Spanish. He says that the
> > se in se lo was quasi-reflexive. He gives two
> examples:
> >
> > Su amigo se lo tomó - His friend took it (for
> himself)
> >
> > Su amigo gelo tomó - His friend took it from him.
> >
> Is _gelo_ actually attested? What era? In a
> "literary" work, or in very
> early documents (wills, land grants etc. etc.) or
> _glosas_ where one can see
> the vernacular being born, as it were.
>




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