Re: OT: Spanish pronouns ("usted", etc.)

Barry Garcia wrote:
>
> Ralph Penny says that it the substitution of gelo by se lo is partly
> phonological between /S/ (</S/, /Z/) and /s/, and also syntactical. Se
> lo already existed in Old Spanish and Middle Spanish. He says that the
> se in se lo was quasi-reflexive. He gives two examples:
>
> Su amigo se lo tomó - His friend took it (for himself)
>
> Su amigo gelo tomó - His friend took it from him.
>
Is _gelo_ actually attested? What era? In a "literary" work, or in very
early documents (wills, land grants etc. etc.) or _glosas_ where one can see
the vernacular being born, as it were.

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