Re: English questions

Hello,

The point on GVS has been answered I think. On the other two, here's
what my textbook on History of English has to say.

> (b) when the phoneme /x/ disappeared
Early Modern English period.

> (c) when /y/ unrounded (derounded? What's the term?) to /i/
The OE one? the process was complete by mid-11th century in most
dialects (it started in the OE period proper). West Midland a bit later
(whence OE _byrigan_ > Central _birien_, West Midland _burien_, Kent
_berien_, which gives modern _bury_ in West Midland orthography and Kent
pronunciation).

[...]
> Also, does anyone know why Modern English ended
> up with /x/>/f/ in a few words (e.g. laugh, enough) rather
> than /x/ just dropping as it did in most words?
Apparently because its heavy velarisation caused a parasite back vowel.
Back vowels are rounded in English, so you get a labial on-glide, which
finally gives [x_w] > [f]. The orthography shows it: _bro*u*ght_, OE
_bróhte_, _ta*u*ght_, OE _táhte_. In 16-17 century English poetry you
get rhymes like _daughter_ - _softer_, which shows that the alternation
was much alive at that time. The distribution was of course dialectwise.

Hope this helps a bit,
Pavel
--
Pavel Iosad               pavel_iosad@mail.ru

Is mall a mharcaicheas am fear a bheachdaicheas
                 --Scottish proverb