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Re: THEORY: English Pronouns (was Re: THEORY: Ergativity and polypersonalism)

From:Philip Newton <philip.newton@...>
Date:Tuesday, January 25, 2005, 8:09
On Mon, 24 Jan 2005 17:51:14 -0500, Rob Haden <magwich78@...> wrote:
> On Mon, 24 Jan 2005 19:25:39 +0100, Philip Newton <philip.newton@...> > wrote: > > >And the pronoun in the second example "should" be 'who', otherwise you > >have the aforementioned stylistic clash. > > I thought that pronouns as objects of prepositions *always* took the > accusative form.
Well, let's just say that if you follow that rule, then you're not allowed to use the word order "the person ___ it happened to". So if you do use that word order, you're already speaking colloquial English, not standard written English, so the grammar rules are different. Cheers, -- Philip Newton <philip.newton@...> Watch the Reply-To!


Chris Bates <chris.maths_student@...>"To whom"