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Re: (In)transitive verbs

From:Joe <joe@...>
Date:Thursday, February 12, 2004, 18:58
jcowan@REUTERSHEALTH.COM wrote:

>Joe scripsit: > > > >>I disagree. If there is a rule(which applies to multiple verbs), it is >>regular(hence the term). >> >>For instance, there is a rule that says a class III strong verb, which >>has 'i' as the stem vowel, changes that stem vowel to 'a' in the simple >>past, and 'u' in the past participle. (swim, swam, swum, drink, drank, >>drunk, sing, sang, sung). >> >> > >I don't think that's so much a rule as a cluster of associations that >represents the decay of a rule that hasn't worked reliably for over a >thousand years. The strong verbs used to form seven clear-cut classes, >as we can see by looking into a grammar of Gothic, but what's left of them >in English is messy, with all kinds of borderline cases. Consider "run", >whose p.t. "ran" and p.p. "run" suggest that the present should be "rin", >as indeed it is in Scots. But "rin" changed to "run" at some point and >produced the current (unique?) u/a/u alternation. > >
Yes, so can't we call 'run' irregular, but 'swim' regular?