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Re: more English orthography

From:Roger Mills <romilly@...>
Date:Thursday, May 18, 2000, 4:30
Nik Taylor wrote:
>However, for MY idiolect, I'm not entirely convinced that there's ANY
difference between [V] and [@] beyond stress. And apparently not just my idiolect, I've heard others call [V] and [@]> Same here, if I assume correctly that [V] means "upside down v", as in _cup, but(t), slut etc. Thinking about this over the last few days, I've come to suspect that ALL instances of Engl. final open syllable /@/ e.g. sofa, drama, Alabama etc. are non-native, hence, in the absence of written forms, we would have no idea whatever about the underlying vowel. The schwa in 3d sing/noun pl. /-@z/ is often higher -- all the way to barred i-- for some, accounting for such near minimal pairs as /j@st/ or /jVst/ 'just (adj.)' vs. ?/ji-st/ 'just (adv).' Some claim the same contrast for _Rosa's_ vs. _roses_. Reverting to the case of Buginese /-?/: Historically, that /?/ reflects the neutralization of final *p,t,k,r,l,s, of which only /-k-, -r- and -s-/ have survived underlyingly. However, presented with an unfamiliar word with /-?/, the average native speaker has no idea which consonant to use in derivations. Even relatively familiar words show variation between speakers-- from **/apa?/ some might say **/apar@N/ others will give **/apas@N/ or **/apak@N/. In a few cases the dictionary gives two (or all three) possibilities, with slight differences in meaning. The language is written, though not widely anymore I think; in any case the writing system-- very perverse and ill-adapted--doesn't indicate final /?/, or final /N/ for that matter. ObConlang: In Kash, kawayo kombra would mean 'dead horse'.