From: | Ian Spackman <ianspackman@...> |
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Date: | Friday, August 8, 2003, 11:46 |
> >There's something I don't understand in the title written with the Tengwar >script. >Why is there a vowel carrier (the last character) with no vowel diacritic >above or below it?IIRC Tolkien wrote that one vowel - often a - was often taken as understood. It seems especially appropriate in rendering something Indian, since the Indic scripts often have an "inherent" a, albeit of another sort? Ian
Jean-François Colson <bn130627@...> | |
Ian Spackman <ianspackman@...> | |
BP Jonsson <bpj@...> |