Re: A question on palatalization.

Tristan scripsit:

> I know I have no problems with the fact that 'tune'  starts with /tS/
> and 'dune' and 'June' are identical for me.
Nor do I have problems with /tj/ > /t/ (and likewise for /dj/, /nj/, /lj/),
so that "tune" and "toon" (as in cartoon) are identical.

> But don't let that put you off. Unless I'm mistaken, English has had
> /dZ/ for some time (in words like 'bridge' < _bricg_, though I think the
> OE <cg> was a voiced palatal stop originally?) and took some time to
> develop /Z/.*
/Z/ developed from /zj/ plus borrowings from French, though many dialects
have changed borrowed /Z/ to /dZ/ (the survey showed me that I have /Z/
in "garage", but my wife has /dZ/).

> *Which makes me wonder why. Why didn't biscop become */bIZ@p/, even
> allophonically? I understand long fricatives in Old English weren't
> voiced, could this have been long then?
I don't think that allophonic voicing of spirants affected /S/; why not,
I have no idea.

--
John Cowan      jcowan@reutershealth.com        http://www.reutershealth.com
        "Not to know The Smiths is not to know K.X.U."  --K.X.U.

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