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Re: A question on palatalization.

From:Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>
Date:Thursday, January 2, 2003, 15:57
Quoting John Cowan <jcowan@...>:

> > *Which makes me wonder why. Why didn't biscop become */bIZ@p/, even > > allophonically? I understand long fricatives in Old English weren't > > voiced, could this have been long then? > > I don't think that allophonic voicing of spirants affected /S/; why not, > I have no idea.
[S] is a [-anterior] segment according to most systems of feature geometry. If the soundchange affects only [+continuant] [+anterior] segments (thus creating [v D z] out of [f T s]), we would expect exactly such a dichotomy. ========================================================================= Thomas Wier "I find it useful to meet my subjects personally, Dept. of Linguistics because our secret police don't get it right University of Chicago half the time." -- octogenarian Sheikh Zayed of 1010 E. 59th Street Abu Dhabi, to a French reporter. Chicago, IL 60637


Dirk Elzinga <dirk_elzinga@...>