Re: A question on palatalization.
|From:||Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>|
|Date:||Thursday, January 2, 2003, 15:57|
Quoting John Cowan <jcowan@...>:
> > *Which makes me wonder why. Why didn't biscop become */bIZ@p/, even
> > allophonically? I understand long fricatives in Old English weren't
> > voiced, could this have been long then?
> I don't think that allophonic voicing of spirants affected /S/; why not,
> I have no idea.
[S] is a [-anterior] segment according to most systems of feature
geometry. If the soundchange affects only [+continuant] [+anterior]
segments (thus creating [v D z] out of [f T s]), we would expect
exactly such a dichotomy.
Thomas Wier "I find it useful to meet my subjects personally,
Dept. of Linguistics because our secret police don't get it right
University of Chicago half the time." -- octogenarian Sheikh Zayed of
1010 E. 59th Street Abu Dhabi, to a French reporter.
Chicago, IL 60637