Re: Irrealis mood and non-finite verbs
|From:||R A Brown <ray@...>|
|Date:||Saturday, March 29, 2008, 22:10|
Campbell Nilsen wrote:
> So, for example, I assume that the subjunctive is an example of the irrealis?
If one thinks of _realis_ and _irrealis_ as being the opposite poles, so
to speak, of the modal axis, then the subjunctive mood will tend toward
the irrealis pole. But it how far toward the irrealis pole will depend
on the language.
For example, while many uses of the subjunctive in Latin tend toward the
irrealis pole, not all do so. For example, it is used for _all_
subordinate clauses in reported speech, irrespective of what evidence
the writer and/or speaker may or may not have for the veracity of the
Frustra fit per plura quod potest
fieri per pauciora.
[William of Ockham]