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Re: Irrealis mood and non-finite verbs

From:Lars Finsen <lars.finsen@...>
Date:Sunday, March 30, 2008, 15:34
Den 29. mar. 2008 kl. 23.11 skreiv R A Brown:

> For example, while many uses of the subjunctive in Latin tend > toward the irrealis pole, not all do so. For example, it is used > for _all_ subordinate clauses in reported speech, irrespective of > what evidence the writer and/or speaker may or may not have for the > veracity of the statement.
That's why it's called subjunctive, isn't it? The subjunctive in many IE languages is, if I'm not mistaken, a merger of a former subjunctive and an optative, which is a more specialised irrealis mood. This is the case with Urianian, for example. But doesn't Latin have an optative still? (Forgive me, I'm not an expert in Latin.) LEF


R A Brown <ray@...>