Re: Irrealis mood and non-finite verbs
|From:||Lars Finsen <lars.finsen@...>|
|Date:||Sunday, March 30, 2008, 15:34|
Den 29. mar. 2008 kl. 23.11 skreiv R A Brown:
> For example, while many uses of the subjunctive in Latin tend
> toward the irrealis pole, not all do so. For example, it is used
> for _all_ subordinate clauses in reported speech, irrespective of
> what evidence the writer and/or speaker may or may not have for the
> veracity of the statement.
That's why it's called subjunctive, isn't it?
The subjunctive in many IE languages is, if I'm not mistaken, a
merger of a former subjunctive and an optative, which is a more
specialised irrealis mood. This is the case with Urianian, for
example. But doesn't Latin have an optative still? (Forgive me, I'm
not an expert in Latin.)