Re: Is this a realistic phonology?
| From: | Orjan Johansen <oerjan@...> |
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| Date: | Monday, March 8, 1999, 13:55 |
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On Mon, 8 Mar 1999, BP Jonsson wrote:
> That front vowels alone should have a voicing effect looks not
> very realistic IMHO.
Could the following be a realistic historical explanation for such a
phenomenon?
- First, front vowels (only) are diphthongized; [e] -> [ej], [i] -> [ij].
- Then, the [j] is assimilated with a following consonant, voicing it.
- The diphthongization might even take place only when the following
consonant is close to [j] in place of articulation, i.e. [k].
Greetings,
=D8rjan.