Re: Is this a realistic phonology?
|From:||Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...>|
|Date:||Monday, March 8, 1999, 20:43|
Orjan Johansen wrote:
> Could the following be a realistic historical explanation for such a
> - First, front vowels (only) are diphthongized; [e] -> [ej], [i] -> [ij].
> - Then, the [j] is assimilated with a following consonant, voicing it.
> - The diphthongization might even take place only when the following
> consonant is close to [j] in place of articulation, i.e. [k].
I doubt it. I don't think that /j/ could cause such a voicing.