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Re: Is this a realistic phonology?

From:Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...>
Date:Monday, March 8, 1999, 20:43
Orjan Johansen wrote:
> Could the following be a realistic historical explanation for such a > phenomenon? > > - First, front vowels (only) are diphthongized; [e] -> [ej], [i] -> [ij]. > - Then, the [j] is assimilated with a following consonant, voicing it. > - The diphthongization might even take place only when the following > consonant is close to [j] in place of articulation, i.e. [k].
I doubt it. I don't think that /j/ could cause such a voicing.