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Re: CHAT: Nonstandard usage (was Natural language change (was Re:Charlie and I))

From:Don Blaheta <dpb@...>
Date:Wednesday, September 29, 1999, 4:01
Quoth Don Blaheta:
> See, this one sounds clearly wrong to me. I wonder why I've managed to > keep the distinction, but only in "to be"...? Are there other languages > out there where some tense or mood or such is only used for certain > verbs, leaving the other ones to drop into a different tense? Or is > that sort of thing usually analysed as two tenses, with identical forms > except for one verb?
After I sent this, I remembered that this is somewhat the case in German, where iirc one of the subjunctives differs from the past tense only for "sein" and maybe one or two other verbs... or am I misremembering? -- -=-Don<>-=- 1.79 x 10^12 furlongs per fortnight -- it's not just a good idea, it's the law!