Re: USAGE: Glottal stop for /t/ (was Re: 2nd person pronoun for god)

My final t's are always glottal stops--not only that,
but sometimes they even get glottalized in the middle
of words.  I think my most ideolectic (?) word is
"ointment", pronounced /"oj~?m@~?_h/ --I think I got
the X-SAMPA right, anyway.  All of the vowels are
nasalized (strange vowels to be nasalizing, at that),
and it's full of glottal stops.  I feel this is very
uncharacteristic of South Midland dialect (the stretch
from central Indiana down to Tennessee).  I think a
lot of this comes from living in a college town, where
there are a lot of accents that can potentially be
assimilated.  People don't generally think I'm from
here--they think either the upper Midwest (Minnesota
or Wisconsin) or they put me in the Northeast
somewhere.

[tEj?_h] care. :)
Clitn


--- Jake X <alwaysawake247@...> wrote:
> > you left out [?_h] which is how my brother
> pronounces final /t/ and /k/
> > (which makes words like "lake" [lEj?_h] and "late"
> [lEj?_h] homonyms)
> >
>
> I lived for a while in Brooklyn NY, and I've
> recently wondered about that.
> Who was the first to say ['bV,?Er] for /bVtEr/ (or
> is it [bV?@r] and
> /bVt@r/ ). Come to think of it, in Brooklyn they'd
> probably say ['bV,?@] . I
> think it's not aspirated when I hear it here. Do
> other people's dialects
> also have ? as cophonemic with t?
>
> Jake

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