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Re: Evolution of Plural Markers

From:Rob Haden <magwich78@...>
Date:Thursday, February 5, 2004, 19:41
On Fri, 30 Jan 2004 16:16:57 -0800, Steve Cooney <stevencooney@...>
wrote:

>I take it from your question that you think plural >marker(s) are a good thing, and that not having them >means a limitation of some kind. ?
No. I just think that plural markers necessarily arise from former stand- alone words in languages that do not have such markers.
>Are you assuming that 'undeveloped' languages don't >have such markers? In looking at Chinese, which is a >good example where a language has rather non-english >plurality - "wo3" means "my", "we", and "our" - there >is indeed a different spin on describing plurality, >but this is generally left to context.
In my opinion, there is no such thing as an "undeveloped" language, objectively speaking. Any such descriptions of languages are completely subjective (i.e. a matter of opinion). - Rob