Re: Phonetic question...
From: | Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...> |
Date: | Friday, March 22, 2002, 21:12 |
En réponse à Paul Edson <conlang@...>:
>
> My understanding is that the "palatalized" diacritic
> ([superscript j] in IPA, ['] or [_j] in X-SAMPA) indicates a
> modification to the release of the consonant it modifies.
> How then, does [tj] differ in practice from [t']?
>
Basically, one is a cluster, the other one a single consonant. The main
difference lies in length: [tj] would be about twice as long as [t_j]. Also, in
the second one the sound is actually pronounced with the tongue raised towards
the palate (palatalisation) while in the first one it only happens during the
pronounciation of the [j] part.
> And is there a practical difference between say, IPA
> [left-tail n]/SAMPA [J] and SAMPA [n'] or for that matter
> [nj]? Take as an example the Spanish word for "year": [aJo]
> vs. [an'o] vs. [anjo].
>
Yep, though the difference is very thin. [J] is a palatal nasal. That's to say
it's completely articulated in the palate. [n_j] is simply palatalised, which
means that the middle of the tongue raises towards the palate, but the basic
articulation is still alveolar (or dental, depending on your n's :)) ). As for
[nj], it's a cluster, composed of two different sounds (with a blurred limit
due to the inertia of the vocal apparatus), whose main difference between the
two other sounds is the length of pronunciation.
I agree that the difference is extremely thin, and I actually know of no
language that has phonemic distinction between palatalised alveolar consonants
and actual palatals (a distinction between [n_j] and [J] for instance).
> I've a whole range of consonants with a palatal release in
> my as-yet unnamed first language, and I'm having trouble
> deciding how to notate them.
>
If it is really a palatal release (that's to say the palatal articulation
appears during the production of the sound and not at the beginning), then the
correct one is the sign of palatalisation [_j]. Or at least it's my opinion.
Funny that you mention this today. I'm currently busy writing a grammar of
Astou, one of my first language, which happens to oppose non-palatalised from
palatalised consonants (it even has a three-way distinction between normal,
long and palatalised consonants that superposes to the voiced-voiceless
distinction in Ancient Astou, but it lost its long consonants).
Christophe.
http://rainbow.conlang.free.fr
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