|From:||Al Green <glennaroe@...>|
|Date:||Wednesday, August 20, 2008, 15:12|
Shouldn't one be make some sort of distinction between phonological as opposed
to phonetic representation. Something like, same pronunciation different
----- Original Message -----
From: David McCann<mailto:david@...>
Sent: 20 August 2008 14:53
Subject: Re: Sibilants
On Tue, 2008-08-19 at 00:59 -0500, Eric Christopherson wrote:
> Is /D/ really different between American and UK English?
According to Peter Ladefoged and Ian Maddieson (The Sounds of the
"We investigated 28 native Californian college students and 28 British
university students and staff… Nearly 90% of the Californian speakers
produced θ … with the tip of the tongue protruded between the teeth…
Only 10% of the British speakers made the sound this way; 90% of them
used an articulation with the tip of the tongue behind the upper front
J. C. Catford, who worked in Michegan, only described the dental
articulation, so the interdental may be a Western thing. Any comments
from the US?
My speech is British (RP), but I'm one of the 10% with the interdental.