Re: Reflexive (was Re: Help on Verbs...)

In the classical languages at least, (en)clitics are defined, as Nik
said, in terms of suprasegmental phonology.

E.g.: Vidit auditque.  The "que" is a clitic because it, together
with "audit", are considered a single word for accent purposes -- it
shifts the accent from "au" to "dit", staying on the penult (Latin
accent is always on the penult unless it is an open syllable with a
short vowel, in which case it is on the antepenult).

Clitics don't have to be any special part of speech or have any
special function; they just have to become part of another word for
accent purposes.

-------------------------------------------------
             edheil@postmark.net
-------------------------------------------------

From Http://Members.Aol.Com/Lassailly/Tunuframe.Html wrote:

> Dans un courrier dat=E9 du 29/10/99 14:14:01  , vous avez =E9crit :
>=20
> > > no, no. i was wrong with (en)clitics. first because clitics cannot =
be
> >  > inflected for definition.
> > =20
> >  Yes they can.  Spanish "el/la/los/las" and French "le/la/les" are
> >  clitics.  A clitic is merely a form which is phonologically attached=
 to
> >  the following/preceding word, but is not a affix.  (Well, slight
> >  simplification there)
>=20
> so separable "articles" are clitics ?
> then maybe french japanese teachers call
> ga, wo, ni, wa, etc. "enclitiques" because
> they see them as a special kind of (apo-/post-)clitics.
>=20
> mathias
>=20