Re: Revised Verb paradigm!
| From: | Keith Gaughan <kmgaughan@...> |
|---|
| Date: | Tuesday, October 30, 2001, 4:41 |
|---|
At 18:30 29/10/01 -0800, you wrote:
>On Sunday, October 28, 2001, at 11:38 , Padraic Brown wrote:
>
>>ii. Past simp. (perf.)
>>
>>parlasi parlason
>>parlaste parlasaz iiA. Past
>>parlasot pharlasont
>
>I noticed in a number of places <p> varied to <ph>. What sound is <ph>
>and what instigates the variance (mostly, it seems, in the 3rd person
>plural)? (I apologize, I realize I've missed a lot of your earlier posts
>on Kerno.)
The <ph> sounds like an <f>, if I'm not mistaken. That's called lenition
in celtic languages.
If I'm mistaken, I'm sure Padraic'll correct me, but I'm almost sure I'm
correct.
K.
--
Keith Gaughan <kmgaughan@...>
http://homepage.eircom.net/~kmgaughan/
I can decide what I give / But it's not up to me / What I get given -=Bjork=-