Re: Latin help

On Sep 6, 2007, at 6:29 PM, Mark J. Reed wrote:

> On 9/6/07, caeruleancentaur <caeruleancentaur@...> wrote:
>> I don't see "doth" as emphatic, but rather as an archaic present
>> tense:
>> I do, thou dost, he doth, etc.
>
> It's not the fact that it's "doth" instead of "does" that makes it
> emphatic, but the fact that it's there at all.  Why "doth magnify"
> instead of just "magnifieth"?  In modern English, at least, the use of
>  "do" as an auxiliary in a positive statement is an emphatic device.
_Do_ before another verb was not always emphatic in English. Sorry, I
don't have any references for that, but I've read it.

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