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______Re:_ _ _ _Questions_about_Tagalog

From:Andre Militante <yatland@...>
Date:Thursday, April 22, 2004, 17:50
Hi all,

> Not 100% sure, but I think there would be. The base > is /alam/ = [?alam], > the [?] is automatic but not phonemic (nor written) > in initial position, and > like vowels in succession are usually kept > distinct-- with [?] in this case. >
Native Tagalog speakers put a glottal stop between two vowels. They even carry this tendency over into their English. For instance, most Tagalog speakers would read the word "coexist" as "co-exist", as if there was a glottal stop between "co" and "exist".
> > Does the phrase mean 'for my son/child Roy' with Roy > in apposition? That > might be the reason for the ligature in this case. > Unfortunately I don't > have a Tag. grammar, just a dictionary, which isn't > very helpful here.
"Para sa anak kong si Roy" means "for my son Roy". I don't really know the reason why we have to put the ligature there. I just know that adding "-ng" makes the sentence grammatically correct. Andre Militante __________________________________ Do you Yahoo!? Yahoo! Photos: High-quality 4x6 digital prints for 25¢