______Re:_ _ _ _Questions_about_Tagalog

Hi all,

> Not 100% sure, but I think there would be.  The base
> is /alam/ = [?alam],
> the [?] is automatic but not phonemic (nor written)
> in initial position, and
> like vowels in succession are usually kept
> distinct-- with [?] in this case.
>
Native Tagalog speakers put a glottal stop between two
vowels.  They even carry this tendency over into their
English. For instance, most Tagalog speakers would
read the word "coexist" as "co-exist", as if there was
a glottal stop between "co" and "exist".

>
> Does the phrase mean 'for my son/child Roy' with Roy
> in apposition? That
> might be the reason for the ligature in this case.
> Unfortunately I don't
> have a Tag. grammar, just a dictionary, which isn't
> very helpful here.
"Para sa anak kong si Roy" means "for my son Roy".
I don't really know the reason why we have to put the
ligature there.  I just know that adding "-ng" makes
the sentence grammatically correct.

Andre Militante




	
		
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