Re: Word Order Indicating Tense (was: my grammar)
From: | Chris Bates <chris.maths_student@...> |
Date: | Thursday, December 30, 2004, 21:05 |
>
> Except if you see a problem I didn't see it seems to function
>
>
It would work I think if nouns have case and the verb has a system of
valence marking affixes (so you know how many arguments to expect). :)
It's unusual, but a lot of people create unusual conlangs.... as for
dropping of arguments, there are some language like Japanese where you
can drop the subject, object etc if they're obvious without marking on
the verb, and without any verbal agreement, so for instance you could say:
have car
for "I have a car", "you have a car" etc if the subject was obvious, or:
"I have"
if the object (for instance car) was obvious. If your language freely
allows the dropping of arguments like the subject or object without some
marking that this has happened then I don't think your system is
workable. But since this isn't the case....