Re: Cases and Prepositions (amongst others)
From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
Date: | Monday, June 19, 2000, 23:31 |
Raymond Brown wrote:
> I was asked who said it was _originally_ an adverb; and
> all the evidence I have as a poor amateur linguist is that it was
> originally an adverb.
Interesting. I'm sure you're right, but I'd always assumed it was a
pronoun of some sort in a locative case, with hither and hence being
other cases. If it was originally an adverb, how did the forms hither
and hence originate?
> an adverb which may
> be used substantively or adjectively as well, of course, adverbially, in
> English.
Adverb seems to be a very hodgepodge category. Manner, place, time,
negation, all these are traditionally called adverbs, yet they seem to
me to be quite distinct. Place and time especially seem very distant
from manner.
> Nik's question on 6th June, which began the "from here" thread, was:
> "How can a preposition govern an adverb?"
And the question has, indeed, been answered.
> But can we categorically state that adpositions may not govern adverbs in
> any natlang ever?
Of course not.
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