Re: Semitic rhotic questions
| From: | Benct Philip Jonsson <bpj@...> |
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| Date: | Friday, November 7, 2003, 21:19 |
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At 17:36 6.11.2003, Isaac Penzev wrote:
>It is rather possible that Old Hebrew /r/ was [G] or [R] because it is
>classified as guttural, and its presence in the stem provokes the same kind of
>phonetic changes, as, e.g. /X\/ or /?\/.
I've read somewhere that [R] ir [R\] rather than [r] was
characteristic of Jewish dialects such as Judeo-French,
Judeo-Spanish and Yiddish long before these uvular sounds
made any inroad into the speech of surrounding non-Jewish
peoples. If this is true (but how would it be provable)
this might be a carryover from ancient Hebrew via Judeo-
Aramaic and Jewish Vulgar Latin.
/BP 8^)
--
B.Philip Jonsson mailto:melrochX@melroch.se (delete X)
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