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Re: Semitic rhotic questions

From:Benct Philip Jonsson <bpj@...>
Date:Friday, November 7, 2003, 21:19
At 17:36 6.11.2003, Isaac Penzev wrote:

>It is rather possible that Old Hebrew /r/ was [G] or [R] because it is >classified as guttural, and its presence in the stem provokes the same kind of >phonetic changes, as, e.g. /X\/ or /?\/.
I've read somewhere that [R] ir [R\] rather than [r] was characteristic of Jewish dialects such as Judeo-French, Judeo-Spanish and Yiddish long before these uvular sounds made any inroad into the speech of surrounding non-Jewish peoples. If this is true (but how would it be provable) this might be a carryover from ancient Hebrew via Judeo- Aramaic and Jewish Vulgar Latin. /BP 8^) -- B.Philip Jonsson mailto:melrochX@melroch.se (delete X) ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~__ A h-ammen ledin i phith! \ \ __ ____ ____ _____________ ____ __ __ __ / / \ \/___ \\__ \ /___ _____/\ \\__ \\ \ \ \\ \ / / / / / / / \ / /Melroch\ \_/ // / / // / / / / /___/ /_ / /\ \ / /'Aestan ~\_ // /__/ // /__/ / /_________//_/ \_\/ /Eowine __ / / \___/\_\\___/\_\ Gwaedhvenn Angeliniel\ \______/ /a/ /_h-adar Merthol naun ~~~~~~~~~Kuinondil~~~\________/~~\__/~~~Noolendur~~~~~~ || Lenda lenda pellalenda pellatellenda kuivie aiya! || "A coincidence, as we say in Middle-Earth" (JRR Tolkien)

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Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>